Thursday, 2 February 2012

What is it permissible for a man to do with his wife during the day in Ramadaan?

Is it permissible for a man to sleep beside his wife in Ramadaan?.

Praise be to Allaah.  

Yes, that is permissible. In fact it is permissible for a man to be intimate with his wife when he is fasting, so long as no intercourse or ejaculation takes place. 

Al-Bukhaari (1927) and Muslim (1106) narrated that ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said: “The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to kiss and be intimate when fasting, and he was the most able of you to control his desire.” 

Al-Sindi said: 

The word yubaashir (translated here as “be intimate”) means touching the wife’s skin and her touching him, such as putting his cheek against hers and so on. 

What is meant here is touching the skin, not intercourse. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked: 

What is it permissible for a man who is fasting to do with his wife who is fasting?

 He replied: 

A man who is observing an obligatory fast is not permitted to do anything with his wife that will lead to ejaculation. People vary in how quickly they reach climax; some of them are slow and can control themselves completely, as ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) said concerning the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), “he was the most able of you to control his desire.” Some of them cannot control themselves and ejaculate quickly. Such a person should not be intimate with his wife and touch her or kiss her etc when observing an obligatory fast. If a person knows that he can control himself, then he can kiss and hug his wife even when observing an obligatory fast, but he must beware of intercourse because having intercourse (during the day) in Ramadaan for one who is obliged to fast results in five things: 

1-     It is a sin

2-     The fast is invalidated

3-     He should refrain from eating etc for the rest of the day. Everyone who breaks his fast in Ramadaan with no legitimate shar’i excuse has to refrain from eating etc (for the rest of the day) and also has to make up that day.

4-     He has to make up that day because he forfeited an obligatory act of worship, which he has to make up.

5-     He has to offer an expiation which is one of the most burdensome of expiations: freeing a slave; if he cannot do that then he must fast for two consecutive months; if he cannot do that then he must feed sixty poor persons. 

If it is an obligatory fast that was being observed at a time other than Ramadaan – such as making up a day missed in Ramadaan, or observing an expiatory fast etc, then breaking the fast results in two things: sin and having to make it up.  But if it was a voluntary fast and he has intercourse during it, then he does not have to do anything.

There is nothing wrong with putting oil on the hair during the day in Ramadaan

What is the ruling on putting oil on the hair during the day in Ramadaan?.

Praise be to Allaah.  

There is nothing wrong with putting oil on the hair during the day in Ramadaan and that does not affect the fast. 

Shaykh Ibn Baaz (15/259) was asked: what is the ruling on using kohl and cosmetics for women during the day in Ramadaan? Does that break the fast or not? 

He replied: 

Kohl does not break the fast for women or for men, according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, but it is better to use it at night for one who is fasting. The same applies to things that are used to beautify the face such as soap and creams etc, that are applied externally to the skin, such as henna, make-up and the like. There is nothing wrong with the fasting person using them, but make-up should not be used if it is harmful to the face. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in Fataawa al-Siyaam (228): 

All kinds of creams, whether used on the face, back or elsewhere, have no effect on the fasting person and do not break his fast. 

The Standing Committee (10/253) was asked: Does kohl or cream used by a woman during the day in Ramadaan break the fast or not? They replied: 

Whoever uses kohl during the day in Ramadaan when fasting does not invalidate his or her fast. The same applies to one who puts oil on the hair during the day in Ramadaan – it does not break the fast.”.

Can he taste coffee whilst fasting?

I work in a company that produces coffee. We often have to taste the coffee to compare the flavour and smell. I know that it is permissible to taste things whilst fasting, if you make sure that none of the drink enters the body. When I taste the coffee I try very hard to make sure that I do not swallow any amount, not even a small amount. But tasting coffee leaves a taste and smell in the mouth. Does tasting coffee whilst fasting invalidate the fast?.

ؤ Praise be to Allaah.  

If a fasting person needs to taste the food whilst fasting, there is nothing wrong with that, and it does not affect the fast so long as none of the food enters the throat of the fasting person. This applies equally to coffee and other things. 

If he tastes it without any need to do so, this is makrooh, but it does not invalidate the fast. 

Ibn ‘Abbaas said: There is nothing wrong with tasting what is being cooked or whatever. Narrated by al-Bukhaari in a mu’allaq report. 

Imam Ahmad said: I prefer that he should avoid tasting food, but if he does that it will not affect him and there is nothing wrong with that. Al-Mughni, 4/359. 

Shaykh al-Islam [Ibn Taymiyah] said in al-Fataawa al-Kubra (4/474): 

Tasting food is makrooh if there is no need to do that, but it does not break the fast. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked in Fataawa al-Siyaam (p. 356): Is the fast invalidated by tasting food?  

He replied: The fast is not invalidated by tasting food so long as one does not swallow it, but you should not do that unless there is a need for it; in that case if a little of it reaches your stomach by accident your fast is not invalidated. 

It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (10/332): 

There is nothing wrong with a person tasting food during the day when fasting, when there is a need to so that, and his fast is valid if he does not deliberately swallow any of it. 

If the taste or smell remains, that does not affect the fast, so long as you do not deliberately swallow anything. 

Ibn Sireen said: There is nothing wrong with using a wet siwaak – i.e., when fasting. It was said: It has a flavour. He said: And water has a flavour, but you rinse your mouth with it. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (3/261): 

It is makrooh to taste food such as dates, bread and soup, unless there is a need to do that, in which case it is o.k. 

The reason for that is that some of this food may go down into the stomach without a person realizing, so tasting this food exposes him to spoiling the fast. Also he may be desiring the food a great deal, so he tastes it in order to enjoy it, and he may swallow it, then some of it goes down into his stomach. 

Examples of necessity are when a cook needs to see how salty or sweet the food is, and so on. 

Based on this: there is nothing wrong with tasting the coffee when you are fasting, because you need to do that. But you have to be very cautious and make sure that nothing reaches your stomach. 

And Allaah knows best.

Semen coming out during the day following intercourse at night – does this invalidate the fast?

After intercourse at night, some semen may come out of the vagina during the day. Does this invalidate the fast? Is it necessary to do ghusl in order to pray?.

Praise be to Allaah.  

Firstly, if semen comes out during the day after intercourse at night, that does not invalidate the fast. We have been permitted to eat, drink and have intercourse from sunset until dawn comes. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“It is made lawful for you to have sexual relations with your wives on the night of As‑Sawm (the fasts). They are Libaas [i.e. body-cover, or screen, or Sakan (i.e. you enjoy the pleasure of living with them)] for you and you are the same for them. Allaah knows that you used to deceive yourselves, so He turned to you (accepted your repentance) and forgave you. So now have sexual relations with them and seek that which Allaah has ordained for you (offspring), and eat and drink until the white thread (light) of dawn appears to you distinct from the black thread (darkness of night)…”

[al-Baqarah 2:187] 

The scholars (may Allaah have mercy on them) have stated that if semen comes out during the day after having had intercourse at night, that does not invalidate the fast. 

It says in al-Jawharah al-Nayyirah (1/138), which is a Hanafi book: 

If a person who is having intercourse fears that dawn will come so he withdraws, then he emits semen after dawn, that does not break his fast. End quote. 

And it says in Haashiyat al-Dasooqi (1/523), which is a Maaliki book: 

If a person has intercourse at night and his semen is emitted after dawn, it seems that he does not have to do anything, as is also the case for one who puts on kohl at night then it reaches his throat during the day. End quote. It says something similar in Sharh Mukhtasar Khaleel, 2/249. 

Al-Nawawi, whose madhhab was Shaafa’i, said in al-Majmoo’ (6/348): 

If a person has intercourse before dawn then he withdraws when dawn comes or straight after it comes, then ejaculates, that does not invalidate his fast, because it came as the result of permissible intimacy, so he does not have to do anything. The same applies if a man’s hand is cut off in a case of hadd punishment and he dies as a result (i.e., no one is responsible for his death). End quote. 

Secondly: 

If a person has intercourse then does ghusl, then some semen comes out of him after doing ghusl, he does not have to do ghusl again, because the reason for that is one reason, so there is no need to do two ghusls. Rather he has to do ghusl if he ejaculates again as the result of renewed desire. 

This has already been discussed in the answer to questions no. 44945 and 12352. 

And Allaah knows best.

Ruling on swallowing one’s own saliva or that of someone else

What is the ruling on a person swallowing his saliva, because I noticed that many people in Ramadan spit a great deal to avoid swallowing their saliva, especially after rinsing their mouths during wudoo’. What is the ruling if the saliva comes from someone else such as his wife’s saliva? Please advise us, may Allaah reward you with good.

Praise be to Allaah.  

Firstly : 

The laws of Islam are based on making things easier and on warding off unusual difficulty. Allaah says in the verses on fasting (interpretation of the meaning): 

“Allaah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you”

[al-Baqarah 2:185] 

And Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“Allaah does not want to place you in difficulty, but He wants to purify you, and to complete His Favour to you that you may be thankful”

[al-Maa'idah 5:6] 

“and [Allaah] has not laid upon you in religion any hardship”

[al-Hajj22:78] 

Hence if something is usually difficult to avoid and cannot be avoided, it does not affect the fast – which includes a person swallowing his saliva when fasting. 

Ibn Qudaamah said: 

What cannot be avoided, such as swallowing one’s saliva, does not invalidate the fast, because avoiding that is difficult. This is similar to dust on the road and the dust from flour. Even if a person lets saliva gather and swallows it deliberately, that does not invalidate his fast because it reaches his stomach in a similar way even if he does not let it gather. 

Al-Mughni, 3/16 

Similarly if he sticks out his tongue with saliva on it, then brings it back in and swallows what is on it (of saliva), that does not break his fast according to the more correct view, because however the tongue moves it is regarded as part of the inside of the mouth, the nature of which cannot change, so it does not matter what is on it (of saliva). 

Haashiyat Qalyoobi, 2/72. 

Secondly: 

What the fasting person has to do after rinsing his mouth: 

Al-Nawawi said in al-Majmoo’ (6/327): 

Al-Mutawalli and others said: If the fasting person rinses his mouth he has to spit out the water, but he does not have to dry his mouth with a piece of cloth etc,. There is no scholarly dispute on this point. 

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said: He does not have to spit even after drinking water when he hears the adhaan for Fajr. There is no report from the Sahaabah (may Allaah be pleased with them) as far as we know to suggest that when a person drinks when dawn breaks he has to spit until the taste of the water disappears. Rather this is an area in which there is lenience. 

Al-Mumti’, 6/428. 

Those scholars who think that a person should spit after rinsing his mouth do not ask him to spit more than once after expelling the water from the mouth. The reason why they stipulate spitting is that the water is mixed with the saliva so it does not come out just from spitting it out. But they do not recommend going to extremes in spitting, because all that is left after that is simply wetness and moisture, and cannot be avoided.  

See al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah, 28/63 

But if anything else is mixed with the saliva that can be avoided, then it is essential to spit it out, then it will not matter if any trace of that is left after that, like a smell etc. This is like what is left from food after suhoor or small pieces that break off the siwaak, or bleeding that comes from the gums. See also questions no. 37745, 37937, 12597. 

Based on this, there is no justification for those who spit a great deal during Ramadaan except for being cautious to avoid something which it is not prescribed to be cautious about. This causes dryness in the mouth and makes them thirsty, and makes fasting difficult for them. It also causes them some hardship, especially if they are in places where spitting is not possible or they do not have any handkerchiefs etc with them. This may also cause them not to sit for long in the mosques to recite dhikr or read Qur’aan, so they miss out on these good deeds during this blessed month. 

Thirdly: 

With regard to swallowing his wife’s saliva, Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: 

With regard to swallowing the saliva of someone else, this invalidates the fast, because he is swallowing something that did not come from his own mouth, so it is likened to swallowing something else. If it is said that ‘Aa’ishah narrated that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to kiss her when he was fasting and suck her tongue (narrated by Abu Dawood, 2386), our response is that it was narrated from Abu Dawood that he said this isnaad is not saheeh. 

Among those who also classed the additional phrase “and suck her tongue” as weak (da’eef) is al-Albaani in Da’eef Sunan Abi Dawood. Ibn Qudaamah mentioned two ways of understanding the hadeeth if we assume that it is saheeh: 

1 – That the two matters are not connected. He said: It may be that he used to kiss her when fasting and suck her tongue at other times. 

2 – The hadeeth does not refer to swallowing saliva at all. He said: It may be that he sucked it (her tongue) but did not swallow the saliva, because the wetness on her tongue was not transferred to his mouth.

 Al-Mughni, 3/17 

Based on this, if neither spouse swallows the saliva of the other, the fast is not invalidated. 

But nevertheless, one spouse sucking on the tongue of the other comes under the general heading of things that lead to intercourse, and kissing and other things that lead to intercourse are forbidden if there is the fear that a person’s fast will be invalidated by ejaculation. But if he is confident that he can control himself then the correct view is that it is permissible but makrooh, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to kiss his wife whilst fasting. (Al-Bukhaari, 1927; Muslim, 1106) 

Al-Mumti’ 6/433. 

But he should guard his fast against anything that may detract from it, especially since these things are permitted during the night in Ramadaan. 

See also questions no. 20032 and 14315.

Saturday, 28 January 2012

What is permissible for a husband after doing the marriage contract with his wife and before announcing the consummation of the marriage?

I have understood from the answers on this website that there are no restrictions between a man and a woman after the nikah, even though the marriage has not been consumated yet. I have read some answers to this question on your website, but i have not been able to find a satisfying answer to the general statement that some people make that one should follow the way of the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and the man and the woman should not meet alone, as he (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not meet with Hadrat Ayesha (RA) till their marriage was consumated a few years after the nikah. So if the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) didnt meet with her alone during the time between the nikah and consumation of marriage, then what is the daleel on which the scholars have based their justification that allows a man and woman to meet with each other after nikah and before the consumation of marriage?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The man remains a stranger to the woman and it is not permissible for him to look at her, shake hands with her or be alone with her. If he wants to marry her, then he should propose marriage – and in this case it becomes permissible for him to look at her only; not shake hands with her or be alone with her. If her family agree and give her in marriage to him, then he becomes her husband and she becomes his wife, and it is permissible for him to do everything – looking, being alone with her, touching her, shaking hands and being intimate, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“And those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts)

6. Except from their wives…”

[al-Mu’minoon 23:5] 

Marriage is established as soon as the marriage contract is done, hence if one of the spouses dies after the marriage contract has been done, the other one inherits from him or her, even if that is before consummation. 

This is the evidence that was quoted by the scholars with regard to this issue. 

But it has become customary among people to announce the marriage contract separately from the consummation, not because consummation is haraam after the marriage contract, but rather because the husband’s circumstances may not allow him to take his wife to the marital home, so there is what is known as “announcement of consummation” or “the wedding night”. As this is the case, the husband should not consummate the marriage with his wife until after the consummation has been announced, because if he consummated the marriage with her before that, it may cause serious problems for both of them. He may divorce her or die, and she may be a virgin who then loses her virginity, and she may become pregnant, thus the woman exposes herself to suspicion and she and her family may be the subject of unending gossip. See the answer to question no. 52806. 

As for the questioner saying that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was not alone with ‘Aa’ishah during the period between the marriage contract and the consummation, this is just conjecture. Who can be certain about that? That period lasted for three years, during which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to come to Abu Bakr’s house twice a day, morning and evening, as is proven in Saheeh al-Bukhaari (476). 

So who can say that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was never alone with ‘Aa’ishah during that period? 

However, it may be that this is true, but that does not mean that this is haraam, because it is proven that it is permissible, based on evidence from the Qur’aan, as quoted above. 

And Allaah knows best.

Ruling on what comes before consummating the marriage with one’s wife; is it haraam to have intercourse after doing the marriage contract?

I heard someone say, when a young man asked him what the rights of the one who has had made a marriage contract are, he replied: Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 
“Forbidden to you (for marriage) are: your mothers, your daughters, your sisters, your father’s sisters, your mother’s sisters, your brother’s daughters, your sister’s daughters, your foster mothers who gave you suck, your foster milk suckling sisters, your wives’ mothers, your stepdaughters under your guardianship, born of your wives to whom you have gone in — but there is no sin on you if you have not gone in them (to marry their daughters)” [al-Nisa’ 4:23] 
Here Allaah differentiates between those to whom you have gone in (consummated the marriage) and those to whom you have not gone in. Is it permissible for the the one who has had made a marriage contract to have intercourse or touch (his wife)? 
I read previously that it is permissible for the one who has had made a marriage contract to do everything because she is his wife, and if the wife gets pregnant before the wedding party, the child is legitimate and has the right to inherit. Is the evidence for this answer correct?.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly: 

The speaker whom you mention is not correct with regard to the ruling or to the evidence quoted. The verse which he quoted as evidence is describing the women whom a man is forbidden to marry. Allaah states that it is haraam to marry mothers, daughters and paternal aunts. Among others whom Allaah says men are forbidden to marry are the daughters of a wife with whom one has consummated the marriage. If a man makes a marriage contract with a woman and she has a daughter, then he leaves her before consummating the marriage with her, then it is permissible for him to marry her daughter, but if he leaves the mother after consummating the marriage with her, then it is not permissible for him to marry her daughter, rather she is permanently forbidden to him. 

This is what the verse means. The verse has nothing to do with what is permitted for the husband to do with his wife with whom he has made a marriage contract. Rather the verse speaks of those women whom a man is forbidden to marry, and states that in order for a stepdaughter – the daughter of a wife – to become his mahram (one whom he is forbidden to marry), it is stipulated that he have consummated the marriage with her mother, and if he has not consummated the marriage with her mother, then it is permissible for him to marry her (the daughter). 

Any person who is asked about something that he does not know must say “I do not know.” It is not permissible for anyone to say about Islam something that is not true, or to say that something is haraam when Allaah has permitted it, or to say that something is halaal when Allaah has forbidden it. 

Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“And follow not (O man, i.e., say not, or do not, or witness not) that of which you have no knowledge. Verily, the hearing, and the sight, and the heart of each of those ones will be questioned (by Allaah)”

[al-Isra’ 17:36] 

“Say (O Muhammad): (But) the things that my Lord has indeed forbidden are Al‑Fawaahish (great evil sins and every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse) whether committed openly or secretly, sins (of all kinds), unrighteous oppression, joining partners (in worship) with Allaah for which He has given no authority, and saying things about Allaah of which you have no knowledge”

[al-A’raaf 7:33] 

Secondly:

With regard to the one who has made a marriage contract with his wife, it is permissible for him to do everything, as she is his wife and he is her husband. If she dies he will inherit from her and if he dies, she will inherit from him, and she is entitled to the mahr in full. But it is better for the one who has made a marriage contract not to consummate the marriage until the marriage has been announced, because consummating the marriage before it has been announced may lead to many evils. The wife may be a virgin and lose her virginity, or she may become pregnant from this intercourse, then she may get divorced or her husband may die, and this will cause anxiety to her family and will cause great embarrassment. Hence the one who has made a marriage contract may touch and kiss his wife, but he should refrain from intercourse, not because it is haraam, but because of the bad things that may result from it. 

For more information please see the answer to question no. 3215. 

Thirdly: 

A number of practical rulings have to do with not consummating the marriage. 

‘Iddah: if a man divorces his wife before consummating the marriage with her, she does not have to observe any ‘iddah, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“O you who believe! When you marry believing women, and then divorce them before you have sexual intercourse with them, no ‘Iddah [divorce prescribed period] have you to count in respect of them. So give them a present, and set them free (i.e. divorce) in a handsome manner”

[al-Ahzaab 33:49] 

Mahr (dowry): if a man divorces his wife before consummating the marriage with her, then she is entitled to half of the agreed upon dowry, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“And if you divorce them before you have touched (had a sexual relation with) them, and you have appointed unto them the Mahr (bridal-money given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage), then pay half of that (Mahr), unless they (the women) agree to forego it, or he (the husband), in whose hands is the marriage tie, agrees to forego and give her full appointed Mahr. And to forego and give (her the full Mahr) is nearer to At-Taqwa (piety, righteousness)”

[al-Baqarah 2:237] 

If no mahr has been stipulated, then she is entitled to a gift according to what he can afford, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): 

“There is no sin on you, if you divorce women while yet you have not touched (had sexual relation with) them, nor appointed unto them their Mahr (bridal-money given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage). But bestow on them (a suitable gift), the rich according to his means, and the poor according to his means, a gift of reasonable amount is a duty on the doers of good”

[al-Baqarah 2:236] 

But if the husband dies, then she is entitled to the mahr in full, if it was agreed upon, and if they had not agreed on the mahr, then she is entitled to a mahr like that of her peers. 

It was narrated from ‘Alqamah from Ibn Mas’ood (may Allaah be pleased with him) that he was asked about a man who married a woman but did not stipulate a dowry, and he did not consummate the marriage with her before he died. Ibn Mas’ood said: She should have a dowry like that of her peers, without exaggeration or falling short, and she has to observe the ‘iddah, and the inheritance is hers. Ma’qil ibn Sinaan al-Ashja’i stood up and said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) passed a ruling concerning Birwa’ bint Waashiq – one of our womenfolk – similar to what you have said. Ibn Mas’ood rejoiced at that. 

Narrated by Abu Dawood (2114), al-Tirmidhi (1145), al-Nasaa’i (3355), Ibn Maajah (1891). Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’ al-Ghaleel (1939). 

And Allaah knows best.